TU ALL OF U ;D
I attach these questions, and some materials
support which helped me.
Questions from the "!" sign at the response I had the exam, or the opposites of these questions.
the question of the "!" sign also try to remember the wrong answers on the exam I had also opposed to these questions and answers.
Success on the exam, I hope the material I sent to you will help you .the documents i attach in the email which 100% has helped me pass the exam with 89% correct answers.
________________________________________
BRAKES
How would you check that the brake servo is working?
For maximum leverage a mechanical brake compensator should be set so that when the brake is fully applied the compensator is?
A = Extremely over center
B = Centered
C = Extremely under center
D = Causing minimum linkage movement
!100% B
Vehicle braking effectiveness is directly related to?
A = The brake pads or lining shape
B = The brake pipes diameter
C = The systems being single or dual circuit
D = The brake pads or lining coefficient of friction
!100% D
Excessive brake bind is most likely caused by
A = Air in a hydraulic system
B = Partially seized wheel cylinder pistons
C = A loose master cylinder
D = Fitting a non-standard extra large servo
100% B
A load sensing valve is for?
A = Providing a over-load warning to drivers
B = Controlling suspension movement to reduce brake cable wear
C = Measuring brake force on overloaded
D = Controlling maximum brake effort
The load sensing valve regulates the braking pressure passing to the brakes so that maximum pressure is only available when the vehicle is fully laden. As the vehicle's load is reduced the valve automatically lowers the braking pressure.
!100% D
The amount of braking assistance provided by a servo is mainly determined by?
A = Servo diaphragm area
B = Servo diaphragm shape
C = Vehicle speed
D = The speed at which the brake is applied
100% A
Which on of the following brake efficiency ranges would a properly maintained car is expected to achieve in an emergency braking situation on a dry tarmac road?
a = 100% to 105%
b = 80% to 85%
c = 50% to 55%
d = 25% to 30%
100% B
Which one of the following is true about hydraulic brake fluid?
A = It is always a red color
B = It repels water
C = It freezes at approximately 0 degrees C
D = It absorbs water
!100% D
A car is accidentally fitted with O/S/F wheel cylinders that have pistons 2.0mm GREATER in DIAMETER than the N/S/F wheel cylinders pistons. This is likely to cause?
A = excessive brake bind at the O/S
B = the brakes to pull to the O/S
C = the brakes to pull to the N/S
D = no difference in the braking
!100% B
Hydraulic brake fluid?
A = compresses very easily
B = expands considerably when heated
C = is virtually incompressible
D = contracts considerably when cooled
100% C
Which one of the following is NOT a type of disc brake caliper?
A = sliding
B = swinging
C = expanding
D = twin piston
!100% C
Which one of the following is true?
A = brake linings are always riveted to brake shoes
B = brake linings are always bonded to brake shoes
C = brake linings can absorb oil
D = brake linings cannot absorb oil
until now the brake linings were not only contaminated to a relatively small degree, but the fluid had massively soaked through the relatively soft brake lining material. This means undoubtedly that small amounts of oil leaking on the brake lining do not create any great problem during normal brake operation. Only if greater amounts of oil continuously leak onto the brake lining will the oil gradually soak through and finally cause a sudden brake failure
!100% C
Excessive brake disc 'run-out' indicates that a brake disc is?
A = buckled
B = not circular
C = too small
D = worn thin
!100% A
Which one of the following does NOT change the braking effectiveness of a car?
A = wheel cylinder piston length
B = wheel cylinder piston diameter
C = brake pedal pressure
D = brake linings or disc pads hardness
100% A
The wall thickness of steel hydraulic brakes pipes most commonly fitted on cars is approximately?
A = 3.0 mm (0.120 ins)
B = 2.5 mm (0.100 ins)
C = 1.8 mm (0.072 ins)
D = 0.7 mm (0.030 ins)
100% D
In a dual circuit hydraulic braking system one half of the system is for providing?
A = A parking brake
B = A secondary brake
C = Servo assisted braking
D = Optional ABS
!100% B
An ABS system is for?
A = Preventing brakes from locking above a certain speed
B = Preventing brakes from overheating
C = Increasing brake servo action
D = Warning drivers of slipper road conditions
!100% A
The terms “leading” or “trailing” in relation to brakes means?
A = A brake shoe applied with or against the rotation of a brake drum
B = Front or rear mounted disc brake calipers
C = Rear wheel inbound or outbound brakes
D = The arrangement of disc or drum brakes on a vehicle
!100% A
Flexible brakes pipes are fitted because they?
A = Bend with suspension and or steering movement
B = Stretch with suspension and or steering movement
C = Do not conduct heat to brake fluid
D = Resist chaffing
100% A
Hydraulic Brake fluid has?
A = A higher boiling point than water
B = A lower boiling point than water
C = A boiling point similar to water
D = Not got a boiling point
100% A
A hydraulic brake system foot brake pedal feels hard if?
A = A wheel cylinder leaks
B = The wheel cylinders are seized
C = The brake system has the wrong fluid type
D = The brake fluid in the system is old
100% B
What half of a “split” hydraulic service braking system applies the parking brake?
A = Front half
B = Neither half
C = Rear half
D = Both front and rear halves
100% B
The force capable of being applied by a foot brake vacuum servo is depending upon?
A = Master cylinder stroke length
B = Brake pedal travel
C = Atmospheric pressure
D = Engine temperature
100% B
A radius brake tester CANNOT be used for?
A = braking imbalance
B = parking brake performance
C = g valve action
D = full air braking system braking effort
100% D
A vehicle that can achieve 100% percent braking efficiency can?
A = stop immediately
B = stop in 100 meters
C = stop in 100 yards
D = Decelerate at a rate equal to gravity (g) i.e. approximately 9 1 ______
!100% A
A vehicle with hard pads on the N/S/F and soft pads on the O/S/F is likely to?
A = have excessive brake bind at the N/S/F
B = have excessive brake bind at the O/S/F
C = Pull to the N/S
D = Pull to the O/S
!100% C
Excessive constant brake bind can be caused by?
A = excessively soft pads or linings
B = brake disc run-out
C = incorrectly adjusted brakes
D = Glazed brake pads or linings
100% D
An acceptable method of repairing a ruptured hydraulic metal brake pipe is?
A = Welding
B = Soldering
C = Brazing
D = None of the above
100% D
A vehicle with dual circuit brakes?
A = can stop twice as fast as a vehicle with single brakes
B = does not need a parking brake
C = always has disc brakes
D = has more than one brake fluid reservoir
!100% A
Brake fade means that?
A = the hydraulic brake fluid level is too low in the reservoir
B = the brakes are loosing there effectiveness usually during sustained use
C = the brakes are too thick
D = the brake linings are too hard
100% B
Which one of the following is the ultimate factor that determines how quickly a vehicle can stop?
A = tyre pressure
B = tyre width
C = tyre type
D = tyre to road adhesion
100% D
A hand brake compensator is for?
A = equalizing brake effort
B = reducing hand brake travel
C = reducing brake rod or brake cable wear
D = releasing brakes quickly
100% A
A Braking system that is described as "air over hydraulic" is?
A = A hydraulic system that has air in it
B = A hydraulic braking system that is applied by air pressure
C = A hydraulic braking system with its reservoir open to the air
D = A "split circuit" braking system that is half hydraulic and air
!100% B
What is most likely to cure a "spongy" brake pedal -?
A = Replacing the foot brake pedal rubber
B = Bleeding the brakes
C = Replacing worn brake shoes
D = Adjusting the brakes
100% B
Normal hydraulic brake fluid is?
A = High detergent mineral oil
B = Low Viscosity mineral oil
C = High viscosity mineral oil
D = None of the above
80 % A -im not sure
How would you check that a brake servo was working?
A = Listen for a change in engine speed when applying the foot brake
B = Measure the brake application time lag
C = Feel for an increase in brake pedal movement as the servo vacuum builds up after being emptied
D = Look for a change in the brake fluid reservoir level when the foot brake is applied
!100% C
STEERING
When a car steering ball joint is in good condition what is the maximum free play movement that should be seen in the direction ACROSS the ball pin when the steering is operated?
A = more than 2.0 mm (0.078)
B = 1.5 mm (0.059) to 2.0 mm (0.078)
C = 1.00 mm (0.039) to 1.5 MM (0.059)
D = virtual none
100% D
Gaiters (or boots) are fitted on a steering rack to?
A = protect the rack fiber bushes from engine heat
B = prevent the tracking adjustment threads from rusting
C = keeps out contamination and retain the lubricant
D = insure that the adjustment shins are kept clean and dry
100% C
Steering “lock stops” are?
A = An anti theft device
B = A means for prevent the tyre edge from fowling
C = A means for preventing steering linkage joints from loosening
D = A means of fastening steering arms to stub axles
!100% B
Which one of the following would alter the “castor” of front steered wheels?
A = modifying the rear suspension to raise the body height
B = fitting the rear wheel spacers to increase the track width
C = removing the front shock absorbers (dampers)
D = fitting extra wide tyres
!100% D
A drop arm is?
A = connected to a track rod
B = connected to a steering box
C = a drag link to stub axle connection
D = A steering vibration damper connection
100% C
A track control arm is for?
A = reducing body roll
B = locating the position of a road wheel
C = providing the means for adjusting toe in/out
D = adjusting camber angle
100% B
What is steering castor?
A = a steering joint lubricant
B = a front hub grease slinger
C = a steering geometry feature
D = a constant velocity joint component
100% C
The camber angle setting of a road wheel determines?
A = the plane of a road wheel in relation to the vertical
B = The wheel bearing type
C = the maximum amount that the steering can be turned towards locks
D = the maximum rebound action
!100% A
Steering self centering (or self righting) is mainly produced by?
A = king pin inclination
B = toe in or toe out
C = camber
D = castor
100% D
Which unit is a sector shaft a part of?
A = rack and pinion assembly
B = steering box assembly
C = power steering pump assembly
D = Steering idler assembly
!100% B
When steering is turned on a right lock?
A = the left wheel turns through a greater single that the right wheel
B = The left and right wheels turn through the same angle
C = The angle through which the left and right wheel turn depends on the road surface
D = The right wheel turns through a greater angle than the left wheel.
!100% D
Which loading are front wheel bearing normally subjected to?
A = torsional and sheer
B = axial and torsional
C = radial and axial
D = radial and sheer
? im not sure 70% C
Which is the most likely front wheels “tracking” setting for a car?
A = between 12 and 16 degrees.
B = between 8 and 12 degrees.
C = between 4 and 8 degrees.
D = between 0 and 4 degrees.
100% D
Excessive front wheels “Toe in” cause which type of front wheel wear?
A = tread centre bald patches
B = advanced wear to the outer shoulder
C = advanced wear to both the inner and outer shoulder
D = advanced wear to the inner shoulder
90% B
In which type of steering mechanism would you allow the smallest amount of free play felt at the steering wheel?
A = worm and cam.
B = rack and pinion
C = worm and peg
D = recirculating ball
!100% B –for non rack and pinion 75mm,for rack and pinion 13mm.
Excessive play in front wheel bearings is likely to cause changes in?
A = steered tracking
B = castor angle
C = king pin lift
D = sector shaft and float
100% A
What is the maximum play allowed between a STEERING WHEEL and a STEERING COLUMN SHAFT?
A = 2.0mm
B = 1.0mm
C = 0.5mm
D = None
100% D
Which one of the following steering/suspension arrangements would you expect to find a steering “idler” assembly?
A = rack and pinion and independent suspension
B = A steering box and independent suspension
C = A steering box and beam axle suspension
D = rack and pinion steering and coil spring independent suspension
!100% B
A fractured steering arm should be repaired by?
A = fitting a replacement
B = gas welding
C = mig welding
D = brazing
100% A
Which one of the following describes the forces are that track rod ends are subjected to in normal use?
A = tension and torsion
B = sheer and torsion
C = torsion and compression
D = tension and compression
95% A
Which force is a steering column most subjected to in normal use?
A = torsion
B = sheer
C = bending
D = compression
100% A
Which one of the following determines the amount of steering 'toe out' (Ackerman effect) on locks?
A = steering arm to stub axle angle
B = castor
C = rack and pinion gear ratio
D = drop arm length
100% A
What is meant by the term ' over steer ‘?
A = the tendency for a vehicle to steer on a smaller turning circle than is expected
B = the steering wheel is situated in front of the first axle
C = the steering wheel is situated directly over the first axle
D = the tendency for a vehicle to steer on a larger turning circle than is expected
!100%A
Steered wheels tracking adjustment is normally made by?
A = fitting a different length drag link
B = adjusting suspension link arms
C = adjusting steering column end float
D = adjusting track rod length
100% D
If steering power assistance pump stops working it will cause?
A = total loss of steering control
B = restricted steering towards locks
C = the steering to feel heavy
D = the steering to feel light
100% C
With “Under steer” do you go in?
A = a bigger circle than you intended
B = a smaller circle than you intended
C = would not make a difference
!100%A
When is it acceptable to fit radial ply tyres to the front and cross ply on the rear?
A = when the rear tyres are wider than the front
B = when the front tyres are the wider than the rear
C = when twin rear wheels are fitted to the rear ( 6 wheeler)
D = its is never acceptable
!100% C
What would be effected by a “space saver spare wheel” to the front wheel of a vehicle?
A = effect the castor
B = effect the camber
C = effect the center point steering
D = has no effect
100% D
When checking for free play at the steering wheel the vehicle would be?
A = on the floor
B = on the grease plates
C = jacked up
D = check while going from lock to lock
!100% A
After sales front wheel spacers will effect?
A = castor
B = camber
C = KPI (king pin inclination)
50 % B
SUSPENSION
Which one of the following would check the effectiveness of a shock absorber (damper)?
A = slowly inspecting the unit exterior for leaks
B = bouncing the suspension and noting the rebound oscillations
C = detaching the unit and measuring the maximum travel
D = measuring the suspension maximum travel
! 100% B
Which one of the following is true?
A = torsion bars are only used in front suspension systems
B = torsion bars are always fitted with there length in line with the length of the vehicle
C = torsion bars can be used in front and rear suspension systems
D = torsion bars are only used in rear suspension systems
!100% C
Which one of the following locates the position of a leaf spring in relation to the chassis or body?
A = spring centre bolt
B = shackle pin
C = anchor pin
D = U bolt
100% B
Which one of the front suspension systems does NOT cause the track width to alter when the left and the right front suspension is simultaneously deflected the same amount?
A = McPherson struts and track control arms
B = coil springs and double wishbones
C = longitudinal torsion bars and track control arms
D = Leaf spring and beam axle
!on my exam 09/09/2009 i answer D
Which one of the following is true about the material used for providing the “springing” in car suspension systems?
A = spring steel is always used
B = rubbed can be used
C = spring steal is never used
D = rubbed is never used.
100% A
A transverse leaf spring is one which has its greatest length?
A = in line with the length of the vehicle
B = across the vehicle
C = to the front of the driving axle
D = to the rear of the driving axle
100% B
A leaf spring 'swinging shackle' is for?
A = securing the spring to the axle
B = preventing the spring leaves from splaying
C = limiting the spring thickness
D = allowing the spring to alter its effective length when flexing
100% D
A suspension bump stop is for?
A = securing spring 'U' bolts
B = limiting suspension vertical movement
C = limiting suspension lateral movement
D = reducing road wheel vibration
100% B
Which type of shock absorber (damper) is usually used with a McPherson strut suspension?
A = lever
B = friction
C = telescopic
D = hydrolastic
100% C
The eye of a leaf spring is for?
A = locating the spring on an axle
B = attaching a spring to a chassis or body
C = attaching a shock absorber (damper) to the spring
D = checking spring alignment
100% B
A suspension torsion bar is usually made from?
A = mild steel
B = spring steel
C = silver steel
D = cast iron
100%B
When a suspension coil spring is 'coil bound' it usually indicates that?
A = the spring is over loaded
B = the spring is encased in a weatherproof jacket
C = the vehicle weight has been reduced
D = the vehicle has the wrong wheel clearance
100% A
What fluid is normally in hydraulic shock absorbers (dampers)?
A = water
B = anti-freeze mixture
C = alcohol
D = oil
100% D
In which direction does a 'pan hard rod' control suspension movement in relation to a vehicle longitudinal axis?
A = laterally
B = vertically
C = towards the front
D = towards the rear
100% A
Which one of the following front suspension system must have TWO combined steering & suspension swivel joints and TWO pivot joints for EACH front wheel?
A = McPherson strut
B = semi-elliptic leaf
C = double wishbone
D = leading arm
!100% C
On a four wheeled car fitted with hydrolastic suspension which one of the following suspension unit linking arrangements would apply?
A = front right and front left to rear right and rear left
B = front right to front left to rear right to rear left
C = rear right to rear left to front right to front left
D = front right to rear right and front left to rear left
100% D
Compared with beam axle suspension which one of the following benefit that is provided by independent suspension?
A = less unsprung weight
B = more unspring weight
C = less moving parts
D = ease of jacking
100% a
Which one of the following is the best description of a mono-leaf suspension spring?
A = spring comprising several separate leafs fastened together
B = a spring which has only one leaf
C = one leaf spring providing suspension for two wheels
D = a non-metallic leaf spring
!100% B
When the leaves of a multi-leaf spring are “splayed” it means?
A = a centre bolt joins the leaves together
B = the spring ends turn upwards
C = the spring ends turn downwards
D = one or more leaves are misaligned
100% A
Which one of the following spring types best describes a suspension coil spring
A = compression
B = tension
C = blade
D = rotary
90% A
WHEELS AND TYRES
Which types of tyre construction have the most flexible side walls?
A = cross ply
B = bias belted
C = radial
D = cross ply remolds
100% C
What does a tyre 'ply rating' indicate?
A = load carrying capacity
B = inflation pressure
C = maximum safe road speed
D = tread rubber thickness
100% A
The correct wheel rim diameter for a 185 x 13 size tyre is?
A = 13cm
B = 185mm
C = 13 inches
D = 6.5 inches
100% C
Where on a tyre are tread wear indicators located?
A = in the tread
B = on the side wall
C = on each shoulder
D = at the bead
100% A
A tyre that is run under inflated will wear more rapidly?
A = at the tread centre
B = on the outer side wall
C = at the tread shoulders
D = on the inner side wall
100% C
The “aspect ratio” of a tyre means that ratio between it’s?
A = inner and outer diameters
B = overall and width and tread width
C = tread width and tread thickness
D = width and sidewall depth
A car wheel description can include a number before the letter that number indicates?
A = the type of hub fitting
B = weather it is suitable for a tubeless tyre
C = its diameter
D = its width
100% D
For a car with four wheels which one of the following tyre type’s combinations is legally correct?
A = radial at the front and cross ply at the rear
B = cross ply at the front and radial at the rear
C = __ Belted at the front and cross ply at the rear
D = radial at the front and ___ belted at the rear?
!100% C
The dish “offset” of a vehicle front wheel affects the?
A = castor
B = toe in or out
C = track width
D = king pin inclination
100%C
The “bead” of a tyre is situated?
A = at each tread shoulder
B = at the tread center
C = where is contacts the wheel
D = inside the tyre carcass at the tread shoulders
100%C
ELECTRICAL
When fitting a relay in an electrical circuit it can?
A = a decrease the circuit voltage
B = reduce the amount of heave gauge wire that would otherwise be needed
C = do away with the need for a fuse in the circuit
D = increase the voltage in a circuit
100% B
In an electrical circuit which unit indicates the “resistance”?
A = watt
B = volt
C = ohms
D = amps
100% C
Which one of the following would affect the brightness of a lamp?
A = battery dimensions
B = battery voltage
C = bulb shape
D = lamp unit shape
!100% B
What would be the total voltage in a circuit that has two six volt batteries connected in SERIES?
A = 3 volts
B = 6 volts
C = 12 volts
D = 24 volts
A starter motor solenoid is?
A = A brush carrier plate
B = a field coil winding retainer
C = a electro magnetic device
D = a communicator segment
100% C
What is the approximate voltage produced from ONE CELL of a Lead / Acid battery?
A = 2 volts
B = 4 volts
C = 6 volts
D = 12 volts
100% A
What minimum fuse rating is needed for a 12 volt circuit with just one 48 watt bulb?
A = 0.4 Amp
B = 2.0 Amp
C = 3.0 Amp
D = 4.0 Amp
100% D
For vehicle wiring, the expression "Earth Return" means?
A = the circuit earths to ground via the vehicle wheels or an earth strap
B = all circuits must have over load cut-out switches
C = relays are needed on all circuits
D = the vehicle body or chassis is a part of the circuit
100%D
The beam image pattern emitted by some modern headlamps is determined by?
A = its lens
B = the supply voltage
C = the circuit amperage
D = its height from the ground
100% A
An alternator has a diode rectifier for?
A = boosting voltage
B = cooling
C = converting output to AC
D = converting output to DC
100% D
BODY AND CORRIOSION
The corrosion process of steel car bodies is known as?
A = oxidation
B = carbonization
C = ionization
D = hydration
100% A
Steel car bodies can be protected from corrosion by?
A = galvanizing
B = tempering
C = normalizing
D = annealing
100% A
Which metal is most resistant to rusting?
A = iron
B = high carbon steel
C = low carbon steel
D = stainless steel
100% D
The corrosion of mild steel is increased by the addition of?
A = alcohol
B = oil
C = nitrogen
D = salt
100%D
The evidence of corrosion on aluminum and its alloys is seen on the metal as?
A = a red stain
B = a white powder
C = a brown stain
D = a brown powder
100% B
Which one of the following is true about bare untreated mild steel?
A = surface rust occurs quicker on thin sheet than it does on thick sheet.
B = the inside of a hollow box section can corrode
C = surface rust occurs quicker on thick sheet than it does on thin sheet
D = rusting and corrosion are different processes
! ? i answer A,but now i think B
A vehicle which has a monoscope construction?
A = has a chassis and removable body
B = does not have a separate chassis
C = is assembled without welding
D = has a roll-over cage.
!100% B
Which implement would be the most suitable for detecting disguised body filler on a steel chassis?
A = a large steel probe
B = a small steel probe
C = an ultra-violet lamp
D = a bar magnet
100% D
Which one of these best describes a space frame?
A = A large bodied vehicle
B = A type of chassis construction
C = A suspension sub-frame member
D = A steering system sub-frame member
!100% B
Compared with electric spot welding. Which one of the following methods of joining sheet steel would have a similar strength and similar resistance to fatigue fracturing?
A = seam welding.
B = pot-riveting
C = stitch (tack) welding
D = bronze welding (brazing)
100% C
EXAUST EMISSIONS
When a petrol engine is running rich the exhaust gas hydrocarbon (HC) will be?
A = higher than it should be
B = lower than it should be
C = the same as when the engine is running weak
D = the same as the exhaust gas carbon monoxide content
100% A
Petrol is mainly composed of?
A = nitrogen and oxygen
B = oxygen and hydrogen
C = oxygen and carbon
D = carbon and hydrogen
! 100% D
If a carburetor petrol engine develops a leak in the inlet manifold it will?
A = run weaker
B = run richer
C = cause excessive exhaust smoke
D = cause none of the above
80% A -im not sure
Which one of the following is the most UNLIKELY to be found in the exhaust from a petrol engine?
A = carbon
B = nitrogen
C = water
D = helium
100% D
Which one of the following is true about a petrol engine exhaust catalytic converter?
A = it converts carbon monoxide (co) to carbon dioxide (co2)
B = it converts carbon dioxide (co2) to carbon monoxide (co)
C = it converts hydrogen (X) to carbon dioxide (co2)
D = its converts hydrogen (X) to carbon monoxide (co)
!100% B
A carburetor petrol engine with a seal crank case system that becomes blocked is likely to?
A = run weaker
B = run richer
C = run differently
D = run hotter
80% C –not sure
Which one of the following does NOT effect the amount of carbon monoxide in the exhaust emitted from a?
A = ignition timing
B = valve timing
C = Air cleaner condition
D = exhaust silencer condition
100%D
Which one of the following would cause a VERY HIGH o2 (oxygen) content (over 10%) in the exhaust emissions reading from the tail pipe of a petrol engine?
A = a weak mixture
B = incorrect ignition timing
C = an inlet manifold leak
D = a serious leak in the exhaust system
!100% B
What does the petrol engine “Lambda sensor” do?
A = measure o2 (oxygen) in the exhaust gas before it reaches a catalytic converter
B = allow air into the inlet manifold to stop ‘running on’
C = pre-heat to assist with cold starting.
D = monitor ignition timing
100% A
Which one of the following is typical compression for a 1990 manufactured car with a high speed indirect injection DIESEL engine?
A = 35.0
B = 20 : 0
C = 10.0
D = 7.0
!100% A
Which one of the following is not required on a diesel engine?
A = a governor
B = a fuel injector
C = a float chamber
D = an inlet manifold
!100% C
To measure the idle engine speed exhaust emissions from a petrol engine car with automatic transmission it should be done when?
A = the gear box selector is set in the ‘park’ position
B = the gear box selector is set in the ‘drive position and the brakes are applied
C = the gear box selector is set in the ‘drive’ position and the road wheels are chocked
D = the engine is cold.
100% A
The color of the exhaust gas emitted from a petrol engine that is running very rich is likely to be?
A = black
B = white
C = dark blue
D = light blue
100% A
49. A 4 cylinder petrol engine has an exhaust gas hydrocarbon content of 600 ppm (parts per million). What is the hydrocarbon content likely to be when a plug lead is removed?
A = over 900 ppm
B = 600 ppm
C = 500 ppm
D = under 400 ppm
100% A
50. The CO (carbon monoxide) content of the exhaust gas emitted from a properly maintained non-cat 4 cylinder petrol engine in good condition is most likely to be?
A = 3.0%
B = 9.0%
C = 12.0%
D = 15.0%
100% A
51. Which one of the following petrol / air mixtures is closest to the theoretical best for the most complete combustion in a petrol engine?
A = 20 air units to 1 petrol unit
B = 15 air units to 1 petrol unit
C = 20 petrol units to 1 air unit
D = 15 petrol units to 1 air unit
100% B
52. Which one of the following fuels should be used when there is a catalytic converter in the exhaust system?
A = 100 octane petrol having 1.4% Tetraethyl-lead
B = 92 octane petrol having 0.4% Tetraethyl-lead
C = 92 octane petrol without any Tetraethyl-lead
D = a blend of 85 octane petrol and paraffin
100% C
Which one of the following situations is the correct one for measuring the normal 'in use' exhaust emissions from a petrol engine?
A = when the engine is cold
B = when the engine coolant water is hot and the sump oil is still cool
C = when the engine coolant water and sump oil are both at normal working temperature
D = when the air cleaner is removed and both the sump oil and engine water coolant are at working temperature
100% C
54. Which is the correct procedure when using an exhaust gas analyser for determining the exhaust emissions from a V6 petrol engine that has two totally separate exhaust systems?
A = add together the readings from each tail pipe
B = average the readings from the tail pipes
C = take the readings from only one tail pipe
D = multiply together the readings from each tail pipe
100% B
55. Which element in the atmosphere aids combustion?
A = Nitrogen
B = Carbon dioxide
C = Carbon monoxide
D = Oxygen
!100%D
The color of the exhaust gas from a petrol engine that burns an excessive amount of lubricating sump oil is likely to?
A = blue
B = black
C = grey
D = white
90% A
Using ‘unleaded’ petrol engine designed only to use ‘leaded’ petrol is most likely to cause
A = valve and/ or valve seat problems
B = excessive carbon build up on pistons
C = excessive inlet manifold corrosion
D = the valve springs to weaken quicker than normal
80% A
An engine fitter with an exhaust system catalytic converter should not be run on ‘leaded petrol because?
A = The exhaust noise would not be properly silenced
B = the catalytic converter exterior casing would be harmed
C = The catalytic converter temperature would be too low
D = the catalalytic converter would probably be harmed internally
!100% D
Which one of the following would INCREASE the co (carbon monoxide) content in the exhaust gases from a four cylinder petrol engine?
A = weakening the petrol/ air mixture
B = removing the air cleaner
C = restricting the air intake to the carburetor
D = running the engine on high octane fuel
90% A
A leaking exhaust analyzer probe will cause the emissions reading to be?
A = Lower for HC (hydrocarbon) than they really are.
B = higher for HC (hydrocarbon) than they really are
C = lower for O2 (oxygen) than they really are
D = higher for CO (carbon monoxide) than they really are.
100%A
General
An exhaust system expansion box is for?
A = removing harmful gases
B = reducing exhaust noise
C = controlling hydrocarbon emissions
D = controlling carbon monoxide emissions
100% B
A petrol engine exhaust system catalytic converter is for?
A = removing certain harmful exhaust emissions
B = condensing steam to water
C = extra silencing
D = preventing an exhaust system from over heating
!100% A
An 'inertia reel' seat belt is one which?
A = unwinds to allow body movement in a head-on collision
B = locks to restrict body movement in a head-on collision
C = is only fitted with lap type seat belts
D = is only fitted with full harness type seat belts
!100% B
A 'lap' type seat belt is one which?
A = has a 3 point mounting
B = has a single point mounting
C = has a 2 point mounting
D = does not need a mounting
!100% C
Which type of windscreen will crack without shattering?
A = toughened
B = laminated
C = tinted
D = wrap around
!100% B
Whats the major disadvantage of using disc brakes over drum brakes?
More expensive
More difficult to replace pads
no self servo
im not sure,70% C
What is most likely to affect the structure of the vehicle chasis?
Roof
Bonnet
Door
Boot
!100% A
A ladder frame is expectionaly weak at withstanding torsional or sheer forces when cornering, which of the following combined helps?
'A' pillar
Cross member
Vehicle Body
!100% C
A diode is for?
Increasing current
Decreasing current
Allowing the current to flow both ways
Allowing the current to flow one way
!100%D
What is the main purpose of suspension?
Providing comfort for the passengers of the car
Allowing all the wheels to stay planted on the ground during varying road conditions
100% second answer
A hydrogas suspension has?
A telescopic damper on the outside
Does not need damping
Has hydraulic damping on the interior
!100% C
Fitting an indentical caliper on a vehicle with a larger piston on the O/S/F is likely to cause?
Excessing brake bind
The vehicle to pull to the O/S
The vehicle to pull to the N/S
No difference at all
A steel pressed wheel is fitted to the near side front of the car, and alloy wheel fitted to the off side front, this is acceptable if?
The wheels are the same overall diameter
Not acceptable under any conditions
!100% forst answer
A wheel with no tread at all is likely to perform better than a wheel with the legal tread limit under the following conditions?
Dry tarmac
Wet tarmac
Would not perform better under any circumstances
!100%C
A drop arm is?
a drag link to stub axle connection
a steering arm to stub axle connection
a gearbox to steering arm connection
a sector shaft to trackrod end connection
100% B
In emergency braking conditions it is ideal if the?
Front wheels lock
Rear wheels lock
All the wheels lock
None of the wheels lock
!100% D
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